Question Summary:
I (living in ) put a request in writing for divorce in on behalf of my friend (NOT living in the ) on her request then will my friend’s divorce take place by shariya law ?

Question Detail:

My friend and her husband lives together in a non-Islamic country. My friend wants to remove the name of her husband from the Pakistani passport to be replaced by her father’s NAME for some official documentation purposes in that non-Islamic country. Bother my friend and her husband are Pakistani nationals. So for removing husband’s name from the Pakistani passport, the government says only when a women is divorced/widowed THEN husband’s name can be removed. is an Islamic country but DOES NOT follows 100% shariya law. law states for divorce a request for divorce should be made in writing and after 3 months of waiting period the divorced is confirmed by law, then husband name can be removed from the passport.

Now my question is if I (living in ) put a request in writing for divorce in on behalf of my friend (NOT living in the ) on her request then will my friend’s divorce take place by shariya law ?   Please keep in mind there is there is NO INTENTION from husband or wife to divorce each other but for some official documentation my friend requires her husband name to be removed from the passport and for this the above action is needed

Please email me if more information is needed regarding the question

Answer :

In the name of Allah, Most Gracious, Most Merciful
Assalaamu `alaykum waRahmatullahi Wabarakatuh
The general ruling regarding the decree of divorce passed in a circular court is that it does not constitute as an Islamic divorce when the wife files the petition for divorce and the husband defends it or does not show any willingness to divorce. As for the case where the husband files the petition for divorce or gives the judge permission to proceed with case when the wife files a petition for divorce, it can be viewed in two different angles:
1. The husband’s signing of forms of divorce.
Shari’ah recognizes the writing down of the words of divorce as a valid method of issuing talaq. If one addresses the words of divorce to his wife, then talaq will take place, whether he made the intention of talaq or not. If one merely writes the words of talaq, but does not address them to his wife, then the occurrence of talaq will depend on his intention.
كتب الطلاق إن مستبينا على نحو لوح وقع إن نوى
(قوله مستبينا) بأن كان على وجه يمكن فهمه وقراءته, والا فلا يقع
(Hashiyat al-Tahtawi ‘Ala al-Dur al-Mukhtar Vol.2 Pg.111 – Darul Ma’rifah Beirut)
الفصل السادس في الطلاق بالكتابة  الكتابة على نوعين مرسومة وغير مرسومة ونعني بالمرسومة أن يكون مصدرا ومعنونا مثل ما يكتب إلى الغائب وغير موسومة أن لا يكون مصدرا ومعنونا وهو على وجهين مستبينة وغير مستبينة فالمستبينة ما يكتب على الصحيفة والحائط والأرض على وجه يمكن فهمه وقراءته وغير المستبينة ما يكتب على الهواء والماء وشيء لا يمكن فهمه وقراءته ففي غير المستبينة لا يقع الطلاق وإن نوى وإن كانت مستبينة لكنها غير مرسومة إن نوى الطلاق يقع وإلا فلا وإن كانت مرسومة يقع الطلاق نوى أو لم ينو
(Al-Fatawa al-Hindiyyah Vol.1 Pg.378 – Maktabah Rasheediyyah)
The same ruling will apply on signing a piece of paper upon which the words of talaq are written.
However, since the words of divorce constitute the meaning of a civil divorce and a Shari’ talaq, one could also make the intention of only a civil divorce and not a Shari’ talaq. Therefore, if one intends to divorce his wife only on civil terms, but does not intend on giving a Shari’ talaq, he can make two witnesses to prove that his intention was only to give a civil divorce and not a Shari’ talaq.
رجل قال لامرأته ترا تلاق .هاهنا خمسة ألفاظ .تلاق وتلاغ وطلاغ وطلاك وتلاك عن الشيخ الإمام الجليل أبي بكر محمد بن الفضل رحمه الله تعالى أنه يقع وإن تعمد وقصد أن لا يقع ولا يصدق قضاء ويصدق ديانة إلا إذا أشهد قبل أن يتلفظ به وقال إن امرأتي تطلب مني الطلاق ولا ينبغي لي أن أطلقها فأتلفظ بها قطعا لقيلها وتلفظ بها وشهدوا بذلك عند الحاكم لا يحكم بالطلاق بينهما وكان في الابتداء يفرق بين العالم والجاهل كما هو جواب شمس الأئمة الحلواني - رحمه الله تعالى - ثم رجع إلى ما قلنا وعليه الفتوى كذا في الخلاصة .
(Fataawa Hindiyyah Vol.1 Pg.357 - Maktabah Rasheediyyah)          
( ويقع بها ) أي بهذه الألفاظ وما بمعناها من الصريح ، ويدخل نحو طلاغ وتلاغ وطلاك وتلاك أو " ط ل ق " أو " طلاق باش " بلا فرق بين عالم وجاهل ، وإن قال تعمدته تخويفا لم يصدق قضاء إلا إذا أشهد عليه قبله وبه يفتى ؛
(Raddul Muhtar Vol.3 Pg.248 - H. M. Sa’eed Company)
2. The judge’s verdict of divorce
The verdict of divorce, given by the Judge of a civil court, can only be regarded as a civil divorce and not a Shari’ talaq. The Judge has been appointed by the country to issue verdicts in accordance to the law of the country and not in accordance to the laws of Shari’ah. It is incorrect to say that the judge acts as a representative (wakeel) of the husband in issuing divorce, as the Judge does not issue the divorce on the request of the husband but gives his verdict of divorce in compliance with the law of the country. At times he may have to issue a verdict of divorce in accordance to the Law of the Country, even though his heart desires otherwise.
Therefore, the mere verdict of a Judge of a civil court cannot be regarded as a Shari’ Talaq. However, the husband’s filing for divorce or signing on the papers of divorce can be regarded as a Shari’ divorce when the conditions mentioned are found and the husband does not intend otherwise.
As far as the verdict of a judge appointed by a strict Sahri’ah court is concerned, it will result in the separation of the husband and wife according to Sahr’ah, regardless of whether the husband intends the divorce or not.
We will not be able to comment on the verdict passed by the courts of as we are unaware of their status according to Shari’ah. We advice you to contact the prominent Ulama of in regards to this issue.
And Allah knows best
Wassalam
Ml. Abu Yahya,
Student Darul Iftaa
Checked and Approved by:
Mufti Ebrahim Desai
Darul Iftaa, Madrassah In'aamiyyah