Question Summary:
Is giving talaq indirectly without the intention considered?

Question Detail:

I messaged my wife out of anger but with no intention to divorce the following: "Morning, Inshallah I plan to release you on Monday next week properly, I will give the 3 months iddah period and then pay your £4000 dowry in full. I will arrange for all your clothes to be sent to you. Then the families can talk what they want to do with furniture etc. Asalamu alaikum" I messaged that to my wife to let her know where our marriage is heading, I said next week so I can make my wife know our problems are serious. But never really intended to release her even on the date messaged on the text. Does this class as one talak? 

Answer :

In the Name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.
As-salāmu ‘alaykum wa-rahmatullāhi wa-barakātuh.
 
The statements in the reference do not constitute talaq. In the future, exercise precaution in making threatening statements of divorce. If you have a marital problem, address the problem.
 
And Allah Ta’āla Knows Best
Muhammad Haris Siddiqui
Student Darul Iftaa
Australia 
Checked and Approved by,
Mufti Ebrahim Desai.