Question Summary:
Explaining Talaaq & Indirect Talaaq

Question Detail:

my wife is a new convert to MUSLIM and ALHAMDULILLAH we are completing 2 years this March. My wife is very much religious and very much active in praying 5 times, she makes it a point not to miss her daily 5 times prayers. I Have a question. My wife does not understand much Arabic. so some times i explain about ISLAM to her in english as and when we talk of deen. some times i have mentioned the Word Divorce to her in the context of explaning like is a man has to divorce his wife only mentioning the word 3 Times is sufficient. and they are seperated. so in order forthis there are many cases when i have uttered the word Divorce be it to talk about the news seen in paper or happenning in the world.
 
Does my mere uttening the word Divorce means we get divorced even if i was just explaning to her. And some times if we have a misunderstanding i have said, if u want u can go to your home and stay there and not come back. does these phrases mean that i have divorced her. Please explain to me. though my intention is not to divorce her. but in just english if i use this word to explain. will that mean we are divorced.
 

Answer :

In the Name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.
As-salamu ‘alaykum wa-rahmatullahi wa-barakatuh.
 
1)     If the husband uses the word of divorce in the context of explaining the laws of divorce to his wife, that does not constitute Talaaq as he did not intend to divorce her.
2)     The statements “if you want you can go to your home and stay there and not come back” without the intention of divorce does not constitute divorce. If divorce was intended then a Talaaq-e-Ba’in (irrevocable divorce) takes place.[1]
 
And Allah Ta’ala Knows Best
Ismaeel Bassa
Student Darul Iftaa
Durban South Africa